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      09-11-2011, 10:12 AM   #6
romak47
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Drives: like a bat out of hell
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Just found a california tax calculator and after doing that it said 0 for use tax. I hope thats right and fair. It makes sense because ive used / bought the car in Germany and driving it there since 2008. If i had intent of using the car in cali after i bought it then they could charge me that use/sales tax.. But since ive used the car in Germany for 3 years i think that may be considered non-intent to use in california. Also(this confuses me since you paid use tax in Texas), i read that you should not be charged use/sales tax in cali if your car was purchased in a different state as long as you purchased it more than 365 days before time of registration. But Bimmerbob you registered in Texas? maybe there usage/sales tax is chargable to you if the car was purchased and brought into texas withing 1.5 -2 years?
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